A jar contains twenty marbles of which six are red, nine are blue and the remaining five are green. While blindfolded, Xing selects two of the twenty marbles random (without replacement) and puts one in his left pocket and one in his right pocket. He then takes off the blindfold.
The probability that the marble in his left pocket is red is \(6/20\). But Xing first reaches into his right pocket, takes this marble out and discovers that it is blue. Is the probability that the marble in his left pocket is red still \(6/20\)? Intuition says that it's slightly higher than that. Here's a more formal framework for answering such questions.
Let \((S,P)\) be a probability space and let \(B\) be an event for which \(P(B)>0\). Then for every event \(A\subseteq S\), we define the probability of \(A\), given \(B\), denoted \(P(A|B)\), by setting \(P(A|B)=P(A\cap B)/P(B)\).
Discussion10.8
Returning to the question raised at the beginning of the section, Bob says that this is just conditional probability. He says let \(B\) be the event that the marble in the right pocket is blue and let \(A\) be the event that the marble in the left pocket is red. Then \(P(B)=9/20\), \(P(A) = 6/20\) and \(P(A\cap B)=(9\cdot6)/380\), so that \(P(A|B)= \frac{54}{380}\frac{20}{9}=6/19\), which is of course slightly larger than \(6/20\). Alice is impressed.
Example10.9
Consider the jar of twenty marbles from the preceding example. A second jar of marbles is introduced. This jar has eighteen marbles: nine red, five blue and four green. A jar is selected at random and from this jar, two marbles are chosen at random. What is the probability that both are green? Bob is on a roll. He says “Let \(G\) be the event that both marbles are green, and let \(J_1\) and \(J_2\) be the event that the marbles come from the first jar and the second jar, respectively. Then \(G= (G\cap J_1)\cup (G\cap J_2)\), and \((G\cap J_1)+(G\cap J_2)=\emptyset\). Furthermore, \(P(G|J_1)=\binom{5}{2}/\binom{20}{2}\) and \(P(G|J_2)=\binom{4}{2}/\binom{18}{2}\), while \(P(J_1)=P(J_2)=1/2\). Also \(P(G\cap J_i)=P(J_i)P(G|J_i)\) for each \(i=1,2\). Therefore, \begin{equation*} P(G)=\frac{1}{2}\frac{\binom{5}{2}}{\binom{20}{2}}+ \frac{1}{2}\frac{\binom{4}{2}}{\binom{18}{2}}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{20}{380}+ \frac{12}{306}\right). \end{equation*} That's about \(4.6\)%.”
Now Alice is speechless.